Clayton Javurek
javurek AT asu.edu
Does anyone have any ideas on the logic of Genesis 38 being sandwiched in between the selling of Joseph into slavery (Gen 37) and the activity of Joseph in the house of Potiphar, the Egyptian (Gen 38)? One idea might be that Genesis 38 follows the thread of thought by focusing Judah who in Genesis 37 saved Joseph from dying of exposure in a pit by having Joseph sold into slavery instead. Another idea might be the Genesis 38 shows the woes that happened to Judah and thus led to Judah's repentance about his abuse of Joseph. Judahs' repentance is demonstrated by his own willingness to be the surety to his father and to Joseph should any thing evil befall Benjamin as recorded in Genesis 43, 44. Question: Since Judah and his brothers already show themselves penitent before Joseph in the Egyptian royal court, did Judah's own repentance previously trigger some kind of chain-repentance in the rest of his brothers about their maltreatment of Joseph long before they ever appeared in the Egyptian royal court, face to face with Joseph? I know that nothing is said about this in the text, but is this repentance on the part of Judah's brothers something to be inferred? I would like to hear any proposal about the reasons for the placement of Genesis 38 focusing on Judah right in the midst of the section about Joseph in Egypt. Thanks.
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