To: mc2499 AT mclink.it, b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
Subject: Re[2]: Nomadic Scribes? (Peter Kirk. Was: John Ronning)
Date: Thu, 21 Jan 1999 15:46:53 -0500 (EST)
I can't reply to all of yours. But please can you explain the
following:
"the name [Philistines] adheres Indo-European linguistic indicators,
reducing the hope of finding a non-I-E group to fit the name to
nonexistence."
Surely a place name P.:Le$eT fits a good Semitic pattern and its
inhabitants would regularly be known as P.:Li$:T.iY; the feminine T
suffix remains in Hebrew gentilics like Ma(:aKfTiY, (a$:T.:RfTiY. I
have even proposed a known Semitic root for it: P-L-$ "dig, break
through". What's so Indo-European about this name?