Some have recently expressed their view regarding a connection between Jesus'
words in John 8:58 and God's words to Moses in Exodus 3:14. It appears that
this view is primarily based on a perceived relationship between the Greek
words found in John 8:58 and the Greek LXX of Exodus 3:14.
However, given the fact that Jesus actually, likely, spoke in Hebrew/Aramaic
to the Jews in John 8:58, what could he have said, in Hebrew/Aramaic, that
would have made his Jewish audience relate his words to _Hebrew_ of Exodus
3:14?
If Jesus had actually used 'ani hu then I can see how his words might have
some relationship to the Isaianic passages where 'ani hu is used, but it seems
unlikely that Jesus could have said anything, given the context of John 8:58,
that would have inferred a relationship with the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14.