Andrew C Smith wrote:Could you please explain what you mean by "generalizing (extemporalis)"? I understand thatr these two forms do not have any specific tense, but I have always understood such forms as niqra and yosheb as participial forms, the former passive (nif'al) and the latter active (qal). Where might I find some bibliography on this subject?
>
> The NIV translation of I Chronicles 13:6 moves from the past to the
> present mid-way through the sentence. To what extent is this justified or
> justifiable?I am not sure whether I understand your question right (I have no NIV
at hand in my office) - but maybe you mean *YHWH yosheb hakkerubim asher
niqra shem*. IMHO both (*YHWH yosheb hakkerubim* and *asher niqra shem*)
are attributes to *'elohim*, which is a little bit clearer in 2 Sam 6:2
in another order. Than present is not real present but generalizing
(extratemporalis), which is in English (and German) indeed represented
by present tense.
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