My question is concerns the *'amar lo*. I'm not quite sure what to do
with it. It's not wayyiqtol. Is it a qal qatal verb clause, like it
appears on the surface, meaning, "He said to him"? That doesn't make a
lot of sense in this context.
The English versions I have here are either ignoring it or making it
part of the concept of provisions, but I haven't found support for that
type of idiom. What am I missing?
Paul
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Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines