Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

corpus-paul - Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul write all of Romans?

corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Corpus-Paul

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: Jeff Peterson <peterson AT austingrad.edu>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Paul write all of Romans?
  • Date: Sat, 4 Dec 2004 15:37:46 -0600

On Dec 4, 2004, at 3:08 PM, Bob MacDonald wrote:
But the opening of the epistle begins as 16.26 ends with "to
bring about the obedience of faith". This seems to argue for
a closure to the opening statement and to be in agreement
with the mind of Paul rather than a secondary copyist.

Interesting question. Though it's very common, it strikes me as hasty to assume that a secondary interpolation wouldn't cohere well with its "host" text. Must we suppose that all scribes in the second and subsequent Christians generations were insensitive, and only clumsy botchers would have attempted an interpolation? Bart Ehrman has a nice argument that hYIOS QEOU in Mark 1:1 is an anti-adoptionist addition to the text, but it fits very nicely with Marcan Christology. On the other hand, it's also unconvincing that any time we meet a paragraph that presents an inconsistency (much less an offense to current sensibilities), it must be a gloss. I'd be glad to see a bit more caution in all such pronouncements, whether affirming or denying an interpolation.

Jeff Peterson


Jeffrey Peterson
Wright Associate Professor of New Testament
Austin Graduate School of Theology
Austin, Texas





Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page