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Subject: Corpus-Paul

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  • From: Abrciw AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Jewish -Gentile Relations
  • Date: Wed, 21 Apr 1999 13:21:21 EDT


In a message dated 4/21/99 8:57:13 AM EST, MillerJimE AT aol.com writes:

> sometimes Acts seems at odds with Paul's
> teachings. In Acts 15 the council at Jerusalem decided that the gentile
> converts did have to observe one food regulation, the ban on blood. After
> all, this was a gentile law, given to the father of gentiles, Noah (Gen
> 9:4-5). But, it doesn't seem to square quite with Paul's letters to the
> Corinthians written a couple years later. When it comes up again in Acts
> (21:25), Paul is juxtaposed to this instruction, but he doesn't actually
> accede to it much less mention his approval. Is the author of Acts
possibly
> reticent about claiming Paul actually approved of requiring this food law?

> Or does Acts assume that everyone in the intended audience agrees on this
> law for the gentiles, and therefore we need not worry about Paul's
agreement?

If we accept the record in Acts as true then it seems the simplest
explanation is that Paul was willing to compromise his practice for the sake
of peace and unity in the church and that I Corinthians presents his actual
doctrine.



> Is it possible to read the Corinthian letters and still conclude that Paul
> would uphold this ban on eating blood?


As a matter of expediency yes as a necessity for justification no.

Bob Bayer
Winchendon, MA



  • Jewish -Gentile Relations, MillerJimE, 04/21/1999
    • <Possible follow-up(s)>
    • Re: Jewish -Gentile Relations, Abrciw, 04/21/1999

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