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  • From: "George Blaisdell" <maqhth AT hotmail.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Paul's conversion & Gal. 1:16 Subjective or Objective
  • Date: Sun, 04 Apr 1999 21:56:14 PDT





>From: Ronald Troxel

>What I'm questioning is
>whether zH{I} de en emoi Cristos in 2:20
>denotes a subjective experience.
>That cannot be assumed.

This is a strange thread.

On the surface, one might ask: "Does Paul experience Christ living
within him?"

If the answer is yes, then: "Is this inward experience subjective to
Paul? Or is it objective to him?"

Seems like a crazy question!

And how about to his associates? Is Paul's ZH DE EN EMOI CRISTOS
objective or subjective to them?

Still seems crazy.

Certainly his associates cannot see Christ living within Paul with their
eyes. They can see what he does, and what happens subjectively within
themselves in his presence, but the Source is not visible to normal
vision. How could it be?

And likewise for Paul. Is not his experience of Christ living within
him by definition subjective?

From the point of view of that subjectivity, it could be argued that his
experience is utterly objective. [I would argue that!]

But to approach this question ~ Objective or Subjective experience? ~
exegetically just seems bonkers to me.

Am I missing the point??

George Blaisdell
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