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  • From: "Stevan Davies" <miser17 AT epix.net>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Paul's conversion & Gal. 1:16
  • Date: Sun, 4 Apr 1999 20:07:55 -0500



> Stevan
> >Just a few sentences later on Paul speaks of Christ who lives in him
> >EN EMOI in Gal 2:20. I'm not sure on what grounds one could possibly
> >assert that Paul had an "objective experience." If indeed he had a
> >"subjective" experience it seems to follow that he assumed that
> >all others who experienced Christ also had a subjective experience...
> >peter, the twelve, james, 500+.
>
> What says zH{I} de en emoi Cristos in 2:20 is a "subjective experience"?
> Is v. 19 a subjective experience?
> Ron

Gee. I just took it for granted that a person who thinks he has had
some other person come to be living in him has had an experience
that led him to reach that conclusion. Similarly (probably
identically) I think people who come to think they have the spirit
living in them have had an experience that led them to think this.
This might be called "spirit possession" experience or perhaps
"pentecostal" experience. I could go on and on about this (wrote
a book about it in 1995 entitled "Jesus the Healer: Possession,
Trance, and the Origins of Christianity") but instead could you
tell me how it can be that a person claiming to have had Christ
revealed in/to him, or having Christ living in him is likely devoid of
some subjective experience to that effect?

Vs 19 may be something else or may not be. It's speaking of
Paul's death and resurrection, which may have to do with
an experience of that sort (one thinks of dying and rising with
Christ in baptism conjoined with receiving the spirit of the Son
and becoming a Son). Or it may just be a metaphor.

Steve Davies
College Misericordia




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