Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dana:

It is my personal view that the following preposition makes no difference to
the action indicated by the verb.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Sun, Apr 26, 2009 at 1:24 PM, dana densmore 
<danadensmore AT hotmail.com>wrote:

>
>
> Thanks, Karl!
>
>
> It does seem to me that in the Ex.19:5 phrase )M $MW( T$M(W BQLY we have to
> be talking about listening not obeying primarily, because of the BQLY, and
> merely hearing doesn't seem right because of the emphasis of the infinitive
> construct in $MW( T$M(W.
>
>
> Can we, in general, get any help from the following preposition, where one
> is present, or from the absence thereof?  It doesn't seem to be universal,
> but is there a clue in some form like when the $M( verb is followed by B: it
> is more like listening, or L: or (L perhaps more like obeying?  Or if no
> preposition, perhaps with )T, more like hearing?  I already know this is way
> too pat and convenient.  But does one get at least some sort of feel based
> on the preposition or particle?
>
>
> Dana Densmore
>
>