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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: "Dr. Joel M. Hoffman" <joel AT exc.com>
- To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute
- Date: Wed, 01 Nov 2006 12:07:56 -0500 (EST)
>So, if the infinitive absolute is not intended to emphasize the
>activity, what is its purpose? There must be a purpose for the added
>verbal form in conjunction with the main verb, else why was it added?
I don't know what the purpose was, but I think that it's a mistake to
conclude that it was for emphasis in the absence of any evidence
pointing clearly (or even obliquely) to that usage.
-Joel
Joel M. Hoffman, PhD
http://www.exc.com/JoelHoffman
-
Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute,
Yonah Mishael, 11/01/2006
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, K Randolph, 11/01/2006
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, Dr. Joel M. Hoffman, 11/01/2006
-
Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute,
Yitzhak Sapir, 11/01/2006
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, Peter Kirk, 11/01/2006
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, B. M. Rocine, 11/01/2006
-
Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute,
Dr. Joel M. Hoffman, 11/01/2006
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, Yonah Mishael, 11/02/2006
- Re: [b-hebrew] infinitive absolute, George Athas, 11/02/2006
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