[b-hebrew] Takliyth

George Athas George.Athas at moore.edu.au
Mon Nov 5 15:48:33 EST 2012


Mike, please remember to sign every post with your full name.

As for the semantic range of perfectum, I don't know. I raised it as a possibility. I'm not a Latin scholar so I can't give you and informed opinion. I was simply raising a logical linguistic issue for consideration.

The word תכלית has the sense of totality and completeness.


GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)


On 06/11/2012, at 5:17 AM, "Mike Burke" <michaelgburk at yahoo.com<mailto:michaelgburk at yahoo.com>> wrote:

>>>>Could this not simply be the phenomenon of shifting semantic domains? In Hebrew, this word means 'perfect' in the sense of 'complete'. While 'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual Latin word has a slightly different semantic range, on which Augustine is basing his discussion. In other words, Augustine is situating his discussion within the Latin meanings of the Latin word, not the Hebrew meanings of the Hebrew word.<<<<

Barry said "The meaning of the Hebrew is much closer to "end, completion" than what we colloquially mean in modern English by "perfect." The Latin perfectum, originally the perfect passive participial form of perficio (complete), bears this sense in Latin as well (beware of reading the modern English sense of "perfect" back into it)," so I assumed the two words had basically the same semantic range.

You say "While 'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual Latin word has a slightly different semantic range."

What is the difference?

Does the Latin contain the idea of moral or ethical perfection?

And what about the suggestion someone made concerning the sense of "mature"?

Do either the Hebrew or Latin contain that idea?

________________________________
From: George Athas <George.Athas at moore.edu.au<mailto:George.Athas at moore.edu.au>>
To: "b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org<mailto:b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>" <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org<mailto:b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>>
Sent: Monday, November 5, 2012 4:22 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Takliyth

Could this not simply be the phenomenon of shifting semantic domains? In Hebrew, this word means 'perfect' in the sense of 'complete'. While 'perfect' is a legitimate way to translate the word in Latin, the actual Latin word has a slightly different semantic range, on which Augustine is basing his discussion. In other words, Augustine is situating his discussion within the Latin meanings of the Latin word, not the Hebrew meanings of the Hebrew word.


GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au<http://moore.edu.au/>)
Sydney, Australia


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