[b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
kenneth at messianicmistakes.com
Wed Dec 26 22:26:37 EST 2012
The usual translation is "when the Most High gave nations inheritances, when He divided sons of mankind..."
What if it says, "when the highest of nations (Israel) gave inheritances, when it (he) divided sons of a man, he (it) will set up (will be caused to set up) (hophal?) borders of peoples (the tribes) for the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His (his) people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance"?
G-d said Israel would be the highest of nations in Deut. 26:19 and 28:1.
--- On Wed, 12/26/12, K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com> wrote:
From: K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
To: "kenneth greifer" <kenneth at messianicmistakes.com>
Cc: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Wednesday, December 26, 2012, 5:06 PM
Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?
Karl W. Randolph.
On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer <kenneth at messianicmistakes.com> wrote:
Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.
I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation is wrong. Any opinions?
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