[b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
kenneth at messianicmistakes.com
Wed Dec 26 21:22:47 EST 2012
The only place I could find that calls Israel two nations is in Ezekiel37:22 about the two kingdoms becoming one nation. I don't think the tribes were called peoples usually, but maybe they could have been called that.
Your idea of combining verses differently sounds interesting. I have never heard that before. I don't think you are right because the verses sound a little funny. I think the usual way sounds better. I have to think about it more.
P.S. Am I supposed to reply to all or just press reply? I never understood exactly how you reply on B-Hebrew. If I reply to all, does that send emails to everyone else on my contact list?
--- On Wed, 12/26/12, K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com> wrote:
From: K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
To: "kenneth greifer" <kenneth at messianicmistakes.com>
Cc: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Wednesday, December 26, 2012, 5:06 PM
Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?
Karl W. Randolph.
On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer <kenneth at messianicmistakes.com> wrote:
Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.
I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation is wrong. Any opinions?
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