[b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
kwrandolph at gmail.com
Wed Dec 26 17:06:22 EST 2012
Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the
final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then
you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel
is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?
Karl W. Randolph.
On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer <
kenneth at messianicmistakes.com> wrote:
> Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He
> set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the
> portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
> I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man
> (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of
> Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His
> Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples
> would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set
> the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.
> I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual
> translation is wrong. Any opinions?
> Kenneth Greifer
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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