Nir cohen - Prof. Mat.
nir at ccet.ufrn.br
Mon Dec 17 18:26:40 EST 2012
>>> De: Isaac Fried <if at math.bu.edu>
It totally stands to reason that king David spoke modern Hebrew (No WAYIQTOLs)
to wives and children.
as the hypothesis that david did not use WAYIQTOL is, to date,
cientifically undecidable, i suggest to avoid discussing it. let each
one have his/her convictions.
but this is a minor point. my main point is that this issue you raise
with increasing frequency is 100% IRRELEVANT to the discussion started
in this thread. worse: it only adds noise to the discussion. the question
put forth was: since WAYIQTOL is part of the OT, how exactly was it
used WITHIN THE OT TEXT AS WRITTEN.
if you have no clue how to answer this question, nor any interest in
the question itself, at least let the others express themselves
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