[b-hebrew] Someone knows?
pporta7 at gmail.com
Sat Apr 16 00:10:43 EDT 2011
We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed.
If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the pointless one,
hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?
I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in 1Sa 2:25
(of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)?
Kind regards from
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
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