[b-hebrew] Psalm 22 answering quotes

kenneth greifer greifer at hotmail.com
Tue Apr 12 09:19:10 EDT 2011


Pere,
 
I am not saying that "enut" can't mean "affliction" in Psalm 22:25. I am just saying that a word that is used only once might have been misunderstood and the meaning guessed by people thousands of years ago. I am not sure if statistics like how many times infinitives are used with lamed in the front or not should be used as proof because just like a word can occur once, an infinitive of a verb might be used without a lamed once. If you can accept the idea that a noun can exist with just one example, then you should probably be able to accept the possibility that a form of a verb can exist just once also. I don't consider this to be proof, but it sounds like my explanation could be a rare use of a word possibly. If you use statistics as proof, then what happens to the rare things that might also exist?
 
Kenneth Greifer 
 


Date: Tue, 12 Apr 2011 05:36:05 +0200
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 22 answering quotes
From: pporta7 at gmail.com
To: greifer at hotmail.com
CC: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org


Kenneth,
 
1. In a general way, Infinitives that come immediately after a verb have preposition 'l' (lamed) preceding them. 
And so, we find 549 cases thereof in the Bible: beginning in Gn 3:24 and ending in Zec 14:19. 
True that we find 96 cases where no preposition lamed precedes the infinitive. 
But the common way is with preposition "lamed".
It is true that verb "shiqets", detest, has no Infinitive following it in the biblical text. But the usual pattern for "verb + infinitive"  is "verb + l (lamed) + infinitive".
So it is logical that in our verse it will be the same thing. Namely: if it meant "to answer" we would find "la'anot". 
 
2. "enut" is here a feminine noun and NOT a verb. The fact that this noun is used once in the Bible does not imply that it does not exist (as a noun).
Pattern [two root consonants + ut] for a (feminine) noun is found here and there in the Bible:
 
-"dmut", image, form (Is 40:18)
-"edut", testimony (Ps 60:2)
-"galut", exile (Is 20:4)
 
and so, "enut", affliction (Ps 22:25)
 
Also we find, to reinforce this, the pattern [three root consonants + ut] again for feminine nouns: 
 
-"siklut", stupidity (Ec 10:13)
-"malkut", royalty (1Ch 29:25)

And today Israeli Hebrew uses this pattern widely: dozens and dozens of nouns are shaped fitting it. 
 
Does all this make an answer to your question?
 
Kind regards from
 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
 

 
2011/4/11 kenneth greifer <greifer at hotmail.com>


Pere,
 
Are you sure Psalm 22:25 can't say "You did not hate answering an afflicted one" instead of "You did not hate to answer an afflicted one"? Genesis 45:3 uses the verb "to be able" yud kaf lamed which might need the word "to" after it before infinitives. Maybe you don't need "to" before the infinitive of the verb "to answer." Do you always need "to" in front of infinitives?
 
How do you know there is a noun "affliction" spelled ayin nun vav tav if it is only used once in Psalm 22:25? There is a word spelled ayin nun vav hay that is translated "humility" in Proverbs 15:33 and Proverbs 18:12. Also, Psalm 18:36 and 2 Samuel 22:36 have the word translated "humility", but I think it might say "Your answering (or Your humility) made me great" because in Psalm 18:4 and 18:7 it says David called on G-d to help him, so maybe G-d answered him.
 
Kenneth Greifer



Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 07:13:21 +0200
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 22 answering quotes
From: pporta7 at gmail.com
To: greifer at hotmail.com
CC: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org





Kenneth,
 
the last word in Ps 22:22 means "You answered me" and not "answer me!".
In Jb 10:9 we have the parallel "asitani", you made me. 
In my opinion there is no reason to translate 'anitani' for an Imperative. 
Now, in Ps 22:25 'enut" is a noun (affliction) and not a verb (to answer).
The usual way to mean "You did not detest answering an afflicted one" is using the Infinitive 'la'anot' ------- look at Gn 45:3.
 
Heartly,
 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)


2011/4/10 kenneth greifer <greifer at hotmail.com>


Psalm 22:22 seems to say "...You answered me", but most translations say "answer me" with the command form. Psalm 22:25 says "You did not hate the affliction (afflicting?) an afflicted one", but it could say "You did not hate answering an afflicted one". It sounds like G-d answered the cry of the person in the from Psalm 22:2-3, but the translations make it sound like he was not answered. Am I misunderstanding the psalm?

Kenneth Greifer

"Real intellectuals can discuss any subject, but pseudo-intellectual snobs only discuss things they agree with." (I noticed many b-hebrew members have little sayings under their names, so I came up with this one. I wonder if that is allowed or do you have to quote someone else?)
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew


-- 
Pere Porta



-- 
Pere Porta

 		 	   		  


More information about the b-hebrew mailing list