[b-hebrew] Reading Jehovah in Psalm 16:2 and in Psalm 110:1

James Christian jc.bhebrew at googlemail.com
Wed Jun 23 15:07:00 EDT 2010


Hi Dave,

I still don't see you stating a position of any kind. Please could you
answer in the simplest of terms what your position is? The only thing I've
been able to extract from any of your responses is that you do not any
longer support the translation of Yahweh and that you believe that scholars
do not have the right to dictate what we should believe. I am sure these
observations are welcomed by whole hearted agreement by many members of this
list. However, none of this seems to be helping in any way to understand
what your position is. Your questions seem to be formulated in a way that is
indicative that you some kind of agenda but it is not yet clear what that
agenda exactly is.

I shall make one last final request. Please make a clear statement of which
translation you support. If you don't want to come straight out with then
that is fine. But don't expect me to continue participation in a discussion
which is unclear from the very outset.

James Christian

On 23 June 2010 15:27, <davedonnelly1 at juno.com> wrote:

> Hi James,
>
> In your last post on the  [b-hebrew] topic: " Reading Jehovah in Psalm
> 16:2 and in Psalm 110:1"
> you asked me a question you have asked me many times,
> and I have not answered in a way that you approved of,
> although I have answered it as honestly as I could,
> at the time I answered you.
>
> You asked:
>
> >>>
> I still don't see any clear statement of a position you hold here Dave.
> Could you spit it out plain and clear?
> Which vocalization/translation do you support?
> No need to repeat the issues to me.
> I am more than aware of them.
> This is a subject
> I've looked into many times before.
>
> James Christian
> >>>
>
> James,
>
> As you know,
> I profess to be a Bible Believing English speaking Christian
> but I am posting on a B-Hebrew Discussion Board!!!
>
> The New Testament that I read
> [ and which Jewish persons are not subject to]
> says  at II Timothy 3:16
>
> >>>
>
> 16. All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for
> doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
> 17. That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all
> good works
>
> >>>
>
> James I am caught between Christian Scriptures that clearly state that:
>  All Scripture is given by inspiration of God
> and the teaching of various Hebrew Scholars
> that teach both on B-hebrew and
> on other cites on the Internet!
>
> Obviously the fingerprints of the Masoretes are all over the Leningrad
> Codex of 1008 -1010 A,D.
> as well as all over the Ben Chayyim Hebrew Text of 1525 A.D.,
> YET CHRISTIAN SCRIPTURES STATE CLEARLY THAT "ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY
> INSPIRATION OF GOD"!
>
> The Question that I am not able to answer is:
>
> DO HEBREW SCHOLARS HAVE AUTHORITY FROM THE GOD OF ABRAHAM , THE GOD OF
> ISAAC,  AND THE GOD OF JACOB TO DOGMATICALLY INFORM SCRIPTURE BELIEVING
> CHRISTIANS HOW TO RENDER GOD'S NAME??????
>
> Dave Donnelly
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