[b-hebrew] why?

Pere Porta pporta7 at gmail.com
Fri Jul 2 12:51:50 EDT 2010


(PP)

> > Concerning noun "yesha', salvation (Ps 20:7) and noun "zera'", seed (Gn
> > 47:23), a student asks why the first has tsere in the first syllable
> while
> > the
> > latter has segol.
> >
> > What good reason could we give him for this difference? Maybe the
> presence
> > of resh in "zera'" would be a sufficient reason?
>
> (YS)
> If you look at the nouns with suffixed pronouns you will see they have
> different
> vowels:
>
> ישע - gives ישעו in Ps 85:10 with a hirik
> זרע - gives זרעו in Gen 1:11 with a patah
>
> The difference then is in the root form.  The noun form of seed is qatl
> whereas
> the noun form of salvation is qitl.  In the independent non-suffixed form,
> the
> qatl formed a seghol in the first syllable whereas the qitl formed a tsere.
>  In
> both cases the normal second vowel of seghol became patah due to the
> guttural.
>
>   (PP)

Is this a satisfaying answer, Yitzhak?  We have "bigdo", his garment (2K
4:39), of beged (Lev 11:32), garment... Namely a segolated (first syllable
with segol and not with tsere) + pronoun changes segol to hiriq...
And there are other samples...

Pere Porta



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-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)



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