[b-hebrew] Was the NT for public consumption?

fred burlingame tensorpath at gmail.com
Thu Dec 23 16:57:54 EST 2010


a slight difference between:

a. hearing the expert read the document; and

b. reading the document oneself.

regards,

fred burlingame

On Thu, Dec 23, 2010 at 3:46 PM, Kevin Riley <klriley at alphalink.com.au>wrote:

> So, all Paul's letters that he intended should be read in church were 'not
> for public consumption'?  I guess it depends on what you mean by 'public'?
>  I would have thought that manuscripts intended to be read in public on a
> regular basis would qualify, but perhaps not.  Does one need to be able to
> read in order to 'consume'?
>
> Kevin Riley
>
>
> On 24/12/2010 3:37 AM, fred burlingame wrote:
>
>> and the same answer applies.
>>
>> before the printing press, only the rich, the gov't., and the church
>> possessed books; because of the cost.
>>
>> http://www.ehow.com/facts_4924257_how-printing-press-changed-world.html
>>
>> hence, the new testament in writing was manufactured not ... for
>> common public consumption.
>>
>> regards,
>>
>> fred burlingame
>>
>> On Thu, Dec 23, 2010 at 10:00 AM, Uri Hurwitz<uhurwitz at yahoo.com>  wrote:
>>
>>  Since the NT contains many citations from the Hebrew
>>>  Bible, though in Greek translation, the new question in the
>>>  subject above seems justified, even in this list.
>>>
>>>  The answer to it should shed much light on the previous
>>>  question regarding public consumption.
>>>
>>>  Season's Greetings,
>>>
>>>  Uri Hurwitz                               Great Neck, NY
>>>
>>>
>>>
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