[b-hebrew] Piel or "stative usage of verb"

Gerry Folbre gfolbreiii at gmail.com
Thu Oct 8 21:08:57 EDT 2009


Dave:
I am not familiar with the phrase, "first-year lies".  What does it mean or
apply to.
Gerry Folbre

On Thu, Oct 8, 2009 at 7:00 PM, <dwashbur at nyx.net> wrote:

>
>
> On 8 Oct 2009 at 18:25, Gerry Folbre wrote:
>
> > Randall wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > "This appears to unintentionally promote an etymological fallacy
> > about
> > pi``el.
> >
> > the distinguishing mark of a "pi``el" verb in a Semitic language is
> > not its
> > semantic context but its phonetic shape. It is the vowel-consonant
> > pattern
> > the marks the word, and if the writing system doesn't show that,
> > -- well, that's too bad."
> >
> >
> >
> > According to Robert K. Logan, "The first proto-alphabetic scripts
> > ... had no
> > provisions for vowels or vocalization.  Reading a script correctly
> > was a
> > matter of good guesswork guided by context" (The Alphabet Effect,
> > pg. 38)
> >
> > Paleo Hebrew and New Aramaic Hebrew were both written without vowels
> > and
> > vocalization points prior to the Masoretic Texts {sixth to the
> > ninth
> > centuries AD).  When the vowel points and vocalization marks of
> > the
> > Masoretic Hebrew Tanakh are removed, the reading text, Qare´,
> > ceases to
> > exist, leaving us only the ancient Kethib {consonantal} text.
> > Therefore,
> > reading the Hebrew Kethib {consonantal} text correctly would be a
> > matter of
> > "good guesswork guided by context."
> >
> > Do you not agree?
>
> Are you familiar with the phrase "first-year lies"?
>
> Dave Washburn
>
> http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur <http://www.nyx.net/%7Edwashbur>
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