[b-hebrew] Question about Gen 1:1-2

Marie Casale mjcasale at earthlink.net
Wed Jul 22 21:08:37 EDT 2009


Greetings to the members:
I am new to B-Hebrew and have joined you to ask a question.

I have been studying the Gap Theory which says there are billions of years of time inserted in between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2. At the end of these billions of years, the earth suffered a great cataclysm (due to Satan's rebellion and fall) that left the earth without form and void.  They say the word WAS in verse 2 could be translated BECAME.  Thus the earth BECAME without form and void.  It was not originally created that way.

Do you use the same Hebrew word 'hayah' to mean both 'was' and 'became' and have to figure out which one should be there by the context of the sentence?  Or does the word 'hayah' have to have a 'le' with it in order for it to mean 'became'?  Can we KNOW whether the word in Gen 1:2 is definitely 'was' or 'became'?

Hope you can shed some light on this because I have read several on-line articles and nothing I have read seems give a definite answer either way.

Thanks for your help.
Sincerely,
Marie Casale


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