[b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions
jaihare at gmail.com
Thu May 31 10:14:55 EDT 2007
(1) I do not think it "redundant" to mention the binyan of a specific
form. However, no one mentioned it at all. The question was entirely
(2) The question was about the form, which is MASCULINE!
>>>> Additionally... Is it normal to use a direct object like this
with להשביע? Should it not employ a lamed-prefix for the indirect
object? I don't know what's standard in BH.
On 5/31/07, Isaac Fried <if at math.bu.edu> wrote:
> B-Hebrew LISTIM,
> HI$BA(TANU consists of the root SB(, 'swear', and the three attached
> personal pronouns HI, AT, ANU for the contextually obvious actors.
> Every Hebrew word is but a root plus personal pronouns. Using the
> term 'hiphil' is a redundancy.
> Isaac Fried, Boston University
> On May 30, 2007, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:
> > Dear B-Hebrew,
> > Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and
> > there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask
> > about:
> > (1) Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is
> > modified with
> > the masculine ZH /zeh/ [זה] in 2:17:
> > נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ
> > הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ
> > NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW
> > Come to think of it, why is H$B(TNW masculine, when it is talking
> > about Rahab?
> > (2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says that the word ZWNH
> > /zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?
> > Thanks,
> > Jason
> > Joplin, MO > Ra'anana (Israel)
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