[b-hebrew] Prophetic Past in Isaiah 9:6(5)
hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Feb 5 22:11:47 EST 2007
> The Jewish Study Bible says the past tense verbs in Isaiah 9:6
> (actually Isaiah 9:5 in the Hebrew text) could be an example of a "prophetic
> past." That is, the verse is actually a future messianic prophecy and the
> verbs are in the past tense because these future events "are as good as
> done" (p. 801). Could someone give me a few examples of this Hebrew
> "prophetic past" in other passages besides Isaiah 9?
> I know we have had extended discussions here about Hebrew tenses
> and my intention here is not to open up that whole can of worms once again.
> So perhaps I should rephrase the question like this: Could someone on this
> list who believes there is such a thing as a "prophetic past" tense in
> Hebrew please provide me with an example or two of this phenomenon in the
> Hebrew Bible?
HH: It is a very common use of the perfect in Hebrew and receives a good
explanation in standard biblical-Hebrew grammars. In Waltke and
O'Connor, _Biblical Hebrew Syntax, it is mentioned in sections 29.5 and
30.5.1e. The passages they cite as examples are Numbers 24:17 and Isaiah
8:23-9:1. In Gesenius-Kautszch-Cowley's Hebrew Grammar it is touched on
in section 106n, with such examples as Isa 5:13; 9:1ff.; 10:28; 11:9
(after KY), 19:7; Job 5:20; 2 Chron 20:37.
> Gary Hedrick
> San Antonio, Texas USA
> garyh at cjfm.org
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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