[b-hebrew] 1 Sam 1:28 -- Asked - Lent??

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Fri Oct 27 14:50:18 EDT 2006


Chris:

Look again at the context. Especially verse 11. "Lent" is an incorrect
translation. A more correct yet not too rigidly Hebraic translation,
"I ask that he be for the Lord all his days, he was asked to be for
the Lord." In other words, she was asking Eli to take her son to be
with him in God's service.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 10/27/06, Chris and Nel <wattswestmaas at eircom.net> wrote:
> 1 Samuel 1:28 -- "I have lent him to the Lord ....  He is lent to the Lord"
>
> The first verb Perfect-Hiphil and the second verb Qal-Participle;  I sat and
> I read and I thought and I looked up and I thought and I read again!  I even
> read a complex synopsis of Hiphil and was left entirely in the dark about
> this. It beats me how we arrive at Lent from Asked/begged.  What more can I
> say?  The REAL issue for me is why not 'NaTaN'.  A simple 'give' and be done
> with it.
>
> And besides all this how can Gesenius and others say 'Lent'. This would
> imply that Hannah, at some stage, expects him back, but this was NOT the vow
> she prayed.
>
> Am I not learning things correctly or what?  I have just began an
> intermediate Hebrew book by Ehud Ben Zvi and he does not even mention this
> anomaly.
>
> Regards
> Chris.



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