[b-hebrew] Question on decomposing words

K Randolph kwrandolph at gmail.com
Fri Oct 6 12:35:10 EDT 2006


Bob:

On 10/5/06, Bob MacDonald <bobmacdonald at shaw.ca> wrote:
> The words are in psalm 2
>
>
>
> yelideTika appears to have two suffixes, one representing the first person
> and the other representing the direct object (as normally translated). It is
> almost as if the verbal form was being considered as a noun and the result
> modified with a second person singular pronominal suffix
>
> So is it qal perfect first person singular with an 'ownership' by the second
> person singular?
>
The first suffix is the verbal first person singular, as you recognize.

The second is the object of the verb. When the object is a pronoun, it
uses the same suffixes as does the genitive when the genitive is a
pronoun and not a noun. The suffixes are merely grammatical form
referring to a pronoun, they do not in themselves mean ownership.
>
>
> In this same psalm, I notice some nouns ending with the 'o' sound - but both
> being translated as 'their'. I would have expected 'his' for the ones ending
> with an 'o'. e.g. their bonds, their cords both end in mem-vav-holem and not
> mem-vav- with dot following (qibbus with mater) - perhaps eimo after the
> plurals is an explicit them (accusative)?
>
The suffix is not -W but -MW which has a different meaning. It can be
either singular or plural, though more commonly plural. It still is
third person, I do not know of an equivalent for first or second
person usage. It appears to have a meaning pointing to a particular
subject, in this case emphasizing that the bands and ropes
(metaphorically speaking) are God's.
>
>
> Thanks again
>
>
>
> Bob
>
>
>
> Bob MacDonald
>
> Victoria BC
>
> http://gx.ca
>
> http://bmd.gx.ca

Karl W. Randolph.



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