[b-hebrew] Who is "him" at Daniel 11:1?
hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Jan 9 09:49:54 EST 2006
>Artscroll-Mesorah, representing traditional Jewish interpretation, puts
>Daniel 10:20-11:1 in the same one paragraph:
>"He said: Do you know why I came to you? Now I will return to do battle with
>the heavenly prince of Persia; then I will depart. But behold -- the
>heavenly prince of Greece approaches. However, I will tell you what is inscribed
>in truthful writing. No one reinforces me against these, except your heavenly
>prince, Michael; and I, in the first year of Darius the Mede, stood up as a
>support and stronghold for him."
>That the thoughts follow without a break, with Darius mentioned only
>casually, strongly suggests that the referent "him" goes back to Michael. Thus it
>is understood by traditional Jewish commentators, with the exception of
>Abarbanel. Concerning the angel's standing up for "him," Artscroll-Mesorah says:
>"i.e., for Michael, the previously-mentioned heavenly prince of the Jews
>In a message dated 01/09/2006 4:00:46 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,
>sesamox at hotmail.com writes:
>So, this commentary assumes that "him" is Darius. However, if we read the
>preceding verses, which were written without a break, we could also
>understand that "him" is "Michael", and the allusion to Darius is a mere
>indication of the year.
>Could you tell me some arguments for and against this interpretation?
HH: My reading of this commentary interprets it to suppose "Michael" is
"him," not "Darius." That's what the following words indicate:
Concerning the angel's standing up for "him," Artscroll-Mesorah says:
"i.e., for Michael, the previously-mentioned heavenly prince of the Jews
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