[b-hebrew] Is YaH:WeH derived from IaBe or Iaoue or "Other"?

David P Donnelly davedonnelly1 at juno.com
Thu Aug 24 08:13:11 EDT 2006


http://img.villagephotos.com/p/2003-7/264290/YahwehfromSmithsBibleDiction
arylowres.JPG
At the link above from Smith’s 1863 “A Dictionary of the Bible”, Smith
notes how Gesenius had punctuated YHWH as “YaH:WeH”. 

http://img.villagephotos.com/p/2003-7/264290/yahwehfromiabe660pixels.JPG
At the link above from Smith’s 1863 “A Dictionary of the Bible”, Smith
presents his opinion that the scholarly reconstruction “YaH:WeH” was
supposed to have been represented by the Iabe of Epiphanius.

It should be noted that in 1863 Smith would have translated YaH:WeH as
“Yahveh” not “Yahweh”
Note that in 1863, Smith believed that Clement of Alexandria had written
“Iaou” not “Iaoue”.
Do any b-Hebrew member have any evidence that Gesenius was influenced by
either “IaBe” or “Iaoue” when he proposed the punctuation “YaH:WeH”?
Is it possible that Gesenius created the punctuation “YaH:Weh” strictly
from his knowledge of Hebrew grammar rules? 
Is “YaH:WeH” an accurate translation of “Iaoue”, or is it necessary to
engage in scholarly speculation to translate “Iaoue” as “YaH:WeH”?  Many
scholarly sources merely state that “Iaoue” favors the translation
“Yahweh”.
Dave Donnelly



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