[b-hebrew] shewa in imperative
VadimCherny at mail.ru
Fri Jun 24 07:52:11 EDT 2005
I don't argue that "harass" or any other word could be pronounced differently. My point is, any speaker differentiates accent and vowel length among neutral, question, and exclamation.This is how we hear intonation. In exclamation, notably commands, first vowel is routinely reduced, just listen to milspeak.I hear the same in Arabic and English, so believe Hebrew imperatives are emphatic of neutral verbs. Try pronouncing catav is command, get c'tav or c'tov. Azerbaijani, Peter is right, stresses the first vowel in imperative at the expense of the second.
.On 24/06/2005 08:22, Vadim Cherny wrote:
>This becomes ridiculous. ...
Vadim, George's point is that the English word "harass", like the
Russian "tvorog" for example, has two different pronunciations with
different stress patterns (but the same meaning), and each speaker will
use the same basic stress pattern in the imperative as in other forms.
So your example "harass" is an unfortunate choice.
I know that some Russian verbs shift their stress in the imperative, but
I have no evidence of this happening in English, or for that matter in
Hebrew. In Azerbaijani the shift is in the opposite direction: the
stress is word final in most verb forms, and so on the ending, but in
the imperative it moves backwards on to the verb stem - necessarily in
the singular because there is no ending, but in the plural there is an
ending which is, unusually, unstressed. So this kind of stress shift is
by no means a language universal.
>>Mr. Cherny obviously is lacking in his understanding of English. There
>>are two distinct pronunciations of "harass" which are not determined by
>>the context in which they are found or the use to which they are put.
>>Ha ' - es or
>>Ha - ras '
>>The pronunciation used is determined by the preference of the one using
>>the term and not by its usage.
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