[b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

Dora Smith villandra at austin.rr.com
Wed Apr 27 11:31:12 EDT 2005


Uh, well.... because they were the first alphabets, and they originated as
shorthand schemes among merchants who didn't have the time and money to
spend learning syllabic writing!

Yours,
Dora Smith
Austin, Texas
villandra at austin.rr.com
----- Original Message -----
From: "Trevor Peterson" <abuian at access4less.net>
To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, April 27, 2005 7:01 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
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