[b-hebrew] Fw: Aramaic to them?
06peterson at cua.edu
Mon Mar 8 05:25:58 EST 2004
Karl Randolph wrote:
> It is precisely the simplification of grammatical forms and the fossilization of spelling that lead me to think that
> Hebrew had ceased to be a spoken language among the masses in the market, in the work place and at the
Sort of like what happened with English, I guess, when it ceased to be a
spoken language? :-) Seriously, I would like to know exactly what you
mean here. How does the simplification of grammatical forms show that a
language is not being spoken, if a language like English somehow
simplified its morphology without (as far as I know) ceasing to be
spoken by any but an elite group. In the same way, I would like to know
why historical spelling in English does not indicate a dead language,
while in Hebrew it would.
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