[b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9

Yigal Levin leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il
Mon Mar 1 15:54:31 EST 2004


Thanks, Harold and Maurice, I think I get the garmmatical picture. I'm still not sure what the difference in meaning between "venit(odad" and "vanit(odad" would be.

Yigal
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan 
  To: Yigal Levin 
  Sent: Monday, March 01, 2004 3:04 PM
  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9


  At 23:29 28/02/2004, you wrote:
    

    Can anyone tell me why the last word in Psalm 20:9, "vannit(odad", has a patah under the vav instead of a sheva?

  Yigal:
  I see you have already got an answer on the list.

  However, its brevity may not have been very helpful to you, so please open the attached .GIF screen-grab from:
  A Bibical Hebrew Reference Grammar

  P.S
  The usual English translation of that last very in v.9 is:  >but we shall rise and stand upright<

  but this is a poor representation, IMHO, of the sense of the hithpolel, which is rendered altogether better in the screen-grab from:
  Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Hebrew (Old Testament) / James Swanson.
  also attached.

  Regards,





  Maurice A. O'Sullivan  [ Bray, Ireland ]
  mauros at iol.ie







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