[b-hebrew] What means, "beyn mayim lamayim"?

George F. Somsel gfsomsel at juno.com
Mon Jun 14 17:26:31 EDT 2004


On Tue, 15 Jun 2004 00:01:30 +0200 "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il>
writes:
> > > > > In Genesis, 1:6, it says that "there was divided" "among/
> > > between
> > > > > waters
> > > > > to/for the waters (vayihiy or viyih mav'diyl, beyn mayi'm
> > > > > lamayi'ym.)
> > > > >
> > > > > How does this translate?
> > >
> > > Folks: might the word "mavdil" not be a noun, "divider" - "and 
> the
> > > was (or
> > > 'came to be') a DIVIDER between water and water"?
> > >
> > > Yigal
> > >
> > _____________
> >
> > Why not?  Isn't a participle by definition a verbal adjective and 
> can be
> > used as a noun?
> >
> > gfsomsel
> >
> Yes, but I was thinking of something more concrete - that God reated 
> the
> earth as a physical divider between the upper and lower waters.
> 
> Yigal
> 
______________

So you're suggesting that Hf)fReC is itself the RfQiYa( ?

I think that would create grave problems with regard to the structure of
the passage.

gfsomsel



More information about the b-hebrew mailing list