Deut. 22:8 *yiphol nophel*
r w ponder, jr.
rwponder at lycos.com
Wed Mar 7 09:51:10 EST 2001
Among the stellar minds in this i-net constellation, I am sure there are many of you who could help with my question. My own reading of Deut. 22:8 always has taken the participle *nophel* to have a substantive meaning of its own -- something like, "one who is prone to falling."
But I have noticed that translators (apparently without exception) take the participle simply as a way of saying "someone" or "anyone." ISTM that either understanding is plausible, but it started me wondering: How does BH customarily say "anyone" or "someone"? It seems reasonable that *ish*, *nephesh* or any number of other terms could be used as indefinites in this manner, but I find they usually are not employed in this fashion, although the idiomatic "a man and his neighbor" is used to mean "everyone."
Thanks, and *shalom* to all.
Rev. Reggie Ponder, Jr.
Mt. Tirzah United Methodist Church
Timberlake, NC USA
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