Deut. 22:8 *yiphol nophel*

r w ponder, jr. rwponder at
Wed Mar 7 09:51:10 EST 2001

Dear b-hebrewers:
   Among the stellar minds in this i-net constellation, I am sure there are many of you who could help with my question.  My own reading of Deut. 22:8 always has taken the participle *nophel* to have a substantive meaning of its own -- something like, "one who is prone to falling."  
    But I have noticed that translators (apparently without exception) take the participle simply as a way of saying "someone" or "anyone."  ISTM that either understanding is plausible, but it started me wondering: How does BH customarily say "anyone" or "someone"?  It seems reasonable that *ish*, *nephesh* or any number of other terms could be used as indefinites in this manner, but I find they usually are not employed in this fashion, although the idiomatic "a man and his neighbor" is used to mean "everyone."
    Thanks, and *shalom* to all.
    Rev. Reggie Ponder, Jr.
    Mt. Tirzah United Methodist Church
    Timberlake, NC USA

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