Language code switching in Daniel
Lisbeth S. Fried
lizfried at umich.edu
Mon Dec 31 12:41:53 EST 2001
How can both the LXX and the MT be inerrent
when they differ?
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Dave Washburn [mailto:dwashbur at nyx.net]
> Sent: Mon, December 31, 2001 11:33 AM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Language code switching in Daniel
> > On another issue, how can one possibly erect a theory of
> inerrancy for the
> > LXX based upon a quotation of Jesus in the NT? All the direct
> quotations of
> > his words are in Aramaic, non?
> Non. First of all, the quotation mentioned was in Hebrews, not in
> the gospels. Second, it's clear that Jesus must have spoken Greek as
> well as Aramaic since we have numerous examples where he spoke to non-
> Jews such as a Roman centurion, a Syrophonecian woman, and the Roman
> procurator. Where it's clear he spoke Aramaic, the Aramaic words are
> transliterated into Greek characters, and they're only snippets.
> Given the commonness of a mixed audience, it seems more likely that
> he spoke Greek most of the time. But even assuming otherwise, the
> Hebrews quotation has nothing to do with it.
> Dave Washburn
> This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to
> do with it.
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