acrane at harvestwest.wa.edu.au
Tue Dec 19 06:38:50 EST 2000
> If this is the case, why does Matthew so frequently use the form "this
> happened so as to FULFIL what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet .
> . " - as he does with the "out of Egypt" quotation itself?
> I agree that later patristic writers like Origen often saw things more in
> terms of symbolism, but that is a different matter.
Maybe the best way to view the word FULFIL (as used by Matthew) as 'to fill
up in meaning' - especially when used toward Jesus with more of a sensus
plenior view than seeking to show 'apples to apples' fulfilment. The
prophet did not directly refer that the Messiah would come out of Egypt, but
that Israel did come out of Egypt. However, a fuller meaning was seen by
Matthew that Jesus also followed the path of the nation of Israel, and so
also came up out of Egypt.
Just a thought....
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