Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Wed Aug 30 06:36:53 EDT 2000
If you read "the dome of the sky" in a modern English literary work, would
you as a literalist understand that the author believed that the sky was a
literal solid dome? Or would you accept that this might be a figure of
speech, a metaphor based on similarity of shape and appearance? If you could
accept this in English, why not in Hebrew?
----- Original Message -----
From: "Liz Fried" <lizfried at umich.edu>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, August 30, 2000 4:23 AM
Subject: RE: Gen 1:6-8.
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Stephen C. Carlson [mailto:scarlson at mindspring.com]
> > Sent: Tuesday, August 29, 2000 11:10 PM
> > To: Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: Re: Gen 1:6-8.
> > At 06:45 PM 8/29/00 -0400, Liz Fried wrote:
> > >What do people who believe in the inerrancy of the
> > >biblical text do with the word raqi(a in vs 1:6-8? Do
> > >they think the sky is a rolled out sheet of metal
> > >strong enough to hold the rain waters?
> > A lot of inerrantists interpret raqi(a as "expanse,"
> > but your question seems more directed to literalists
> > than to inerrantists.
> I'm a literalist, and it doesn't mean "expanse."
> But I guess you can't be both a literalist and an
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