[B-Greek] John 14:30b what sense?
j.d.ernest at bc.edu
Sun Aug 15 02:22:59 EDT 2010
I think you have to look at John 14:31 along with John 14:30:
οὐκέτι πολλὰ λαλήσω μεθ΄ ὑμῶν͵
ἔρχεται γὰρ ὁ τοῦ κόσμου ἄρχων·
καὶ ἐν ἐμοὶ οὐκ ἔχει οὐδέν͵
ἵνα γνῷ ὁ κόσμος ὅτι
ἀγαπῶ τὸν πατέρα͵
καθὼς ἐνετείλατο μοι ὁ πατήρ
ἐγείρεσθε͵ ἄγωμεν ἐντεῦθεν.
Why should Jesus and his disciples rise up and move compliantly onward
toward the passion when the ARCWN approaches? Not because the ARCWN has any
claim on Jesus, but so that the world will know that Jesus (1) loves the
father and (2) does just as the father commanded him (KAQWS / hOUTWS). (This
is not the only way of construing the relationship between AGWMEN ENTEUQEN,
but it makes as much sense to me as the alternative, seen e.g. in the NRSV.)
The Latin "Nullum scilicet omnino peccatum" (Augustine, On John, 95)
interprets the OUDEN in EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN as "that is to say, no sin
> Yeah, in me he has nothing to find
This appears to translate the variant found in D, OUK ECEI OUDEN hEUREIN.
On Sun, Aug 15, 2010 at 12:10 AM, Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com> wrote:
> Jn 14:30
> OUKETI POLLA LALHSW MEQ' hUMWN, ERCETAI GAR hO TOU KOSMOU ARCWON.
> KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN
> The last sentence KAI EN EMOI OUK ECEI OUDEN is difficult to get a
> clear sense. My attempt is (in English):
> Yeah, in me he has nothing to find [to make me do otherwise].
> I would appreciate if I have a translation of Latin on this (? by
> Augustine)(found in Alford).
> Nullum scilicet omnino peccatum.
> Oun Kwon.
> Oun Kwon.
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