[B-Greek] DEUTEROPRWTWi in Luke 6:1

theomann at comcast.net theomann at comcast.net
Tue Apr 6 18:55:55 EDT 2010

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Carl Conrad" <cwconrad2 at mac.com> 
To: "B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org> 
Cc: "Delwyn Campbell" <dxcj4life at hotmail.com> 
Sent: Tuesday, April 6, 2010 4:46:42 PM GMT -05:00 US/Canada Eastern 
Subject: [B-Greek] DEUTEROPRWTWi in Luke 6:1 

Another incoming message that slipped between the cracks: 
From: "Delwyn Campbell" <dxcj4life at hotmail.com> 
Date: April 6, 2010 1:37:46 PM EDT 
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org> 
Subject: "deuteroprotoi" in Luke 6:1 - legitimate? spurious? 

I was reading Luke 6 today, and in the first verse there is a word, “deuteroprotoi,” which is accepted by Matthew Henry, but criticized by Robertson and Vincent.  It is included in the Textus Receptus, and left out of the Westcott/Hort text.  What does the word mean, is it used anywhere else, and why should it be/not be in the text? 
Delwyn X. Campbell 
dxcj4life at hotmail.com 
NA27/UBS4:  Luke 6:1 Ἐγένετο δὲ ἐν σαββάτῳ διαπορεύεσθαι αὐτὸν διὰ σπορίμων, ... 

Textus Receptus: Luke 6:1 εγενετο δε εν σαββατω δευτεροπρωτω διαπορευεσθαι αυτον δια των σποριμων ... 

I'll simply cite Metzger's note in his Commentary on the Text of the GNT: 
"6.1  σαββάτῳ {C} 

        The word δευτεροπρῶτος occurs nowhere else, and appears to be a vox nulla that arose accidentally through a transcriptional blunder. Perhaps some copyist introduced πρώτῳ as a correlative to ἐν ἑτέρῳ σαββάτῳ in ver. 6, and a second copyist, in view of 4.31, wrote δευτέρῳ, deleting πρώτῳ by using dots over the letters – which was the customary way of cancelling a word. A subsequent transcriber, not noticing the dots, mistakenly combined the two words into one, which he introduced into the text. Alternatively, as Skeat has suggested,8 by dittography the letters βατω were added to σαββάτῳ. A later copyist interpreted the β as δευτέρῳ and the α as πρώτῳ, and took τῳ as an indication that the adjective was to agree with σαββάτῳ." 

Note: "vox nulla" means something like "nonexistent word." 

Carl W. Conrad 
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired) 

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I take Metzger's comment to imply that there is some manuscript evidence for this term, if only one of the exemplars that served as the basis for the TR.  Does anyone know where it first appeared?  (Maybe this should be an off-list question. ) 


Theodore H. Mann 
theomann at comcast.com 

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