[B-Greek] 1Jo 3:4,6 - hAMARTANW and POIEW + hAMARTIA

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Oct 6 05:52:47 EDT 2007

As a result of MIME formatting (rather than plain-text ASCII -- if  
using MIME, one really ought to use the two-part, HTML + plain-text,  
formatting) the following message was confusingly formulated. Below I  
have separated Timothy Mitchell's response from the original query of  
Matthew Burgoon. (CWC)

On Oct 6, 2007, at 12:00 AM, Timothy Mitchell wrote:

> on Sat, 29 Sep 2007 Matthew Burgoon wrote;
>> I have a newby question about 1 John 3:4,6:> PAS hO POIWN THN  
>> The basic question is about the difference in sense between  
>> hAMARTANO > and POIEW + hAMARTIA, but I actually wonder more about  
>> method - how > would I go about answering the question for myself?

Timothy Mitchell's response;

>> I think that both phrases, POIEW+hAMARTIA and hAMARTANW have the  
>> same sense. It seems, to me (I don't think my interpretation is  
>> normal and is flavored by my theological views) that the author  
>> uses POIEW+hAMARTIA in verse 4 instead of hAMARTANW because he  
>> uses the verb POIEW in the present active voice to describe doing  
>> ANOMIA. I think that this construction is used to bring out a  
>> contemporaneous "in process" of the actions described. In other  
>> words verse 4 could be translated "All who while (at the same  
>> time) in process of doing sin are also in the process of doing  
>> lawlessness (at the same time)".... I think this because of the  
>> relationship between a present active participle and its present  
>> active main verb. Wallace in GGBB describes this on pg 625 para c)  
>> 2]..."The present participle is normally contemporaneous in time  
>> to the action of the main verb. This is especially so when it is  
>> related to a present tense main verb"...This is by no means the  
>> only thing that the author is trying to do by using this  
>> contstruction, but I believe that this is one of his purposes.In  
>> verse 6 with the use of hO hAMARTAVWN, I think that it is being  
>> used in the substantival sense, as the subject for the clause PAS  
>> the author uses this verb to connect the clause back to verse 4 as  
>> "all who are in the process of sinning". I think that the time  
>> aspect is not as strong because it is being used substantivaly as  
>> the subject, but I think that it's aspect is still there and it is  
>> describing the action as "in process" with what is happening in  
>> verse 4. In other words ...."All who are in process of sinning  
>> have not seen God neither known him".Another thing can be noted,  
>> some translators give the emphasis of the present tense here as  
>> "habitual" or "continual", Wallace gives this viewpoint for some  
>> verses in the Gospel of John. But I think that bringing a  
>> "habitual" or "continual" aspect and not merely an "in process"  
>> aspect brings an entirely different interpretive conclusion. I  
>> think that certain contextual, or grammatical intrusions onto the  
>> present tense, need to exist in this passage for the present tense  
>> to have a "continual" or "habitual" aspect. There are none that I  
>> can note, so the simple "in process" aspect is what I feel is  
>> being portrayed here. Wallace gives some clarity on this when he  
>> describes "Actionsart" on pg 615 para b. Wallace also gives some  
>> explanation of this topic in verse 6 on pg 524 and 525. There are  
>> some interpretive theological conclusion to be made from this but  
>> I won't make them here (unless asked)....Thanks again for an  
>> awesome list!In Christ
> Tim
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