[B-Greek] 1Jo 3:4,6 - hAMARTANW and POIEW + hAMARTIA

Timothy Mitchell taztimmitchell at hotmail.com
Sat Oct 6 00:00:26 EDT 2007

on Sat, 29 Sep 2007 Matthew Burgoon wrote;
> I have a newby question about 1 John 3:4,6:> PAS hO POIWN THN hARMARTIAN ...> PAS hO EN AUTWi MENWN OUC hAMARTANEI ...> 
>The basic question is about the difference in sense between hAMARTANO > and POIEW + hAMARTIA, but I actually wonder more about method - how > would I go about answering the question for myself?I think that both phrases, POIEW+hAMARTIA and hAMARTANW have the same sense. It seems, to me (I don't think my interpretation is normal and is flavored by my theological views) that the author uses POIEW+hAMARTIA in verse 4 instead of hAMARTANW because he uses the verb POIEW in the present active voice to describe doing ANOMIA. I think that this construction is used to bring out a contemporaneous "in process" of the actions described. In other words verse 4 could be translated "All who while (at the same time) in process of doing sin are also in the process of doing lawlessness (at the same time)".... I think this because of the relationship between a present active participle and its present active main verb. Wallace in GGBB describes this on pg 625 para c) 2]..."The present participle is normally contemporaneous in time to the action of the main verb. This is especially so when it is related to a present tense main verb"...This is by no means the only thing that the author is trying to do by using this contstruction, but I believe that this is one of his purposes.In verse 6 with the use of hO hAMARTAVWN, I think that it is being used in the substantival sense, as the subject for the clause PAS hO hAMARTAVWN OUX hEWRAKEN AUTON OUDE EGNWKEN AUTON. I think that the author uses this verb to connect the clause back to verse 4 as "all who are in the process of sinning". I think that the time aspect is not as strong because it is being used substantivaly as the subject, but I think that it's aspect is still there and it is describing the action as "in process" with what is happening in verse 4. In other words ...."All who are in process of sinning have not seen God neither known him".Another thing can be noted, some translators give the emphasis of the present tense here as "habitual" or "continual", Wallace gives this viewpoint for some verses in the Gospel of John. But I think that bringing a "habitual" or "continual" aspect and not merely an "in process" aspect brings an entirely different interpretive conclusion. I think that certain contextual, or grammatical intrusions onto the present tense, need to exist in this passage for the present tense to have a "continual" or "habitual" aspect. There are none that I can note, so the simple "in process" aspect is what I feel is being portrayed here. Wallace gives some clarity on this when he describes "Actionsart" on pg 615 para b. Wallace also gives some explanation of this topic in verse 6 on pg 524 and 525. There are some interpretive theological conclusion to be made from this but I won't make them here (unless asked)....Thanks again for an awesome list!In Christ
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