[B-Greek] non-accusative direct objects
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Mon Jul 23 22:40:15 EDT 2007
I am somewhat puzzled by your statement regarding ἀποκρίνομαι [APOKRINOMAI] and a direct object. The word does not take a direct object at all in any case. There are times when an INdirect object is used "x answers TO y", but no direct object. Sometimes a preposition is used to indicate to whom an answer is being given, but again there is no direct object. What is particularly puzzling is that this can't even be considered as a confusion of English practice with Greek practice since English functions in precisely the same way. Even when in English someone says "He answered him" this is not a direct object but an indirect object with an understood "to."
Perhaps you have a better example of what is causing a problem for you.
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----- Original Message ----
From: Delbert Flora <delbert.flora at hotmail.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Monday, July 23, 2007 7:23:35 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] non-accusative direct objects
I don't know percentages, but I presume that "most" verbs take their direct
objects in the accusative case. APOKRINOMAI however takes its direct object
in the dative. Is there anything inherent in verbs that would account for
them taking their direct objects outside the "normal direct object
indicator" accusative? And, is it correct to say that APOKRINOMAI (and I'm
just using this verb for illustrative purpose only) is an exception to the
rule that verbs take their direct objects in the accusative?
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