[B-Greek] heis/mia/hen used as indefinite article?

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Sun Jul 24 08:34:37 EDT 2005



Carl W Conrad wrote:

>Does Hebrew have an indefinite pronoun? 
>

No.
In Hebrew if something isn't specifically made "definite" then it is 
naturally "indefinite". 

>As for EN hUIWi in Heb 1:2, I think that an indefinite pronoun would  
>be misleading there because it might suggest a plurality of sons of  
>God, and although the notion of humanity as "sons" or "children" of  
>God is not problematic, the author of Hebrews is very much concerned  
>with the uniqueness of God's Son. What this suggests is that the  
>English indefinite article may have functions that are quite distinct  
>from what the Greek writer/speaker felt required in the situation.
>

As you have already suggested- language reflects thought and thought 
patterns and until one is virtually immersed in a language (i.e., one 
dreams in it), then one is still at a disadvantage in terms of 
understanding and therefore of translating.

Best,

Jim

-- 
D. Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com




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