[B-Greek] RE: Jn 1:1
rongeib at ptd.net
Sun Jan 26 22:48:13 EST 2003
On 1/23/03 Schmuel wrote, questioning the use of the article with THEOS =
in John 1:1.
I have found Daniel B. Wallace's exposition on the verse in *Greek
Grammar Beyond the Basics* (Zondervan), pp. 266-269, to be quite helpful on this
verse. Identifying this as a construction of a pre-verbal, anarthous,
predicate nominative, he demonstrates that there are three choices for
its interpretation; indefinite, definite, or qualitative. His deduction is that
itis most likely qualitative (As Does Mr. Greenlee also in an earlier reply
to your message).
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