infinitive -> finite verb

c stirling bartholomew cc.constantine at worldnet.att.net
Mon May 20 02:40:48 EDT 2002


Andreas Kostenberger* states that the placement of DIDASKEIN prior to the
finite verb EPITREPW does not have much significance (not for his argument
at least) in 1Tim. 2:12. Do any of you text linguists have a problem with
this? Seems like just about everything I have read on constituent order
recently (last 10 years) would find some sort of significance in the
position of DIDASKEIN. Iver, what do you think about this one?

1TIM. 2:12 DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS, ALL'
EINAI EN hHSUCIAi.
--  
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

 *see foot note #8 on page 84,  Women in the Church -- A Fresh Analysis of 1
Timothy 2:9-15 edited by Andreas Kostenberger, Thomas Schreiner, and H.
Scott Baldwin Baker, 1995




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