Translation of EKKLHSIA
rltrapp at bluebunny.com
Tue Aug 22 16:32:00 EDT 2000
I think you got to the answer I was looking for in spite of my rather dense
question. I personally don't think EKKLHSIA had a specifically religious
tone in the NT but was wondering if it might have developed one toward the
end of the first century.
Thanks for your responses.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Jim West [mailto:jwest at highland.net]
> Sent: Tuesday, August 22, 2000 1:14 PM
> To: Lynn Trapp
> Cc: b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu
> Subject: RE: [b-greek] Translation of EKKLHSIA
> At 12:57 PM 8/22/00 -0500, you wrote:
> >Let me try to rephrase it. It appears to me that in
> Classical Greek EKKLHSIA
> >was predominantly, if not altogether, a secular
> word--referring to political
> >and, otherwise, secular assemblies. Did the use of the word
> with reference
> >to a religious "assembly" have any effect on the way the
> word was used
> >following the time of the New Testament?
> What makes you think it had a specifically "religious" tone
> when used by the
> writers of the NT? Isnt it possible that the NT writers
> merely used the
> word they had at hand for "assembly" with nothing denoted
> thereby other than
> the fact that folk gathered together? To be sure, the word
> later became
> loaded as an ecclesiastical one - meaning "church assembly".
> But I dont
> think this happened as early as the NT itself and im not
> anything near a
> patristics scholar- so the exact date of that transformation
> is unknown to me.
> >I hope that's clearer. If not, I may have to give up.
> its not you- its me. im extraordinarily dense.
> thanks for clarifying.
> "going around stirring up apathy "
> Jim West, ThD
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