jwest at highland.net
Fri Jul 9 07:19:32 EDT 1999
At 02:04 PM 7/9/99 +1000, you wrote:
>My apologies for the wrong passage in my previous post re EA: it should be
>Luke 4:34 not 8:28. Do we read that as an exclamation or as an imperative?
I read it as a scribal error. It is absent from a few witnesses (D, 33, a
few minor versions). I think that it was mistakenly added as a
reduplication of the ending of the preceding word (which is pronounced the
same way). I think, in fact, as a matter of pure speculation, that the
lector sorta stuttered when he got to megalh at the end of v. 33, and the
scribe of some ms heard megalh ea.... etc. The sense of the verse is quite
intact without it.
Still, if one is prone to accept ea as a genuine part of v. 34, I would have
to understand it as an exclamation rather than an imperative. How would an
imperative make sense here?
Jim West, ThD
email- jwest at highland.net
web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
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