dd-1 at dd-1 at
Thu Jan 14 10:23:59 EST 1999

Mark and Edward,  Denny Diehl here

Thanks for all the leg work on BAPTISMOS.  As pointed out:

>West Saxon I (c. 990) uses the term "baptista" of John the Baptist 
>(Matt. 3.1 and Luke 9.19); and  at John 3.22 we have "baptizabat":  
>"...eius in iudeam terram. & ibi demorabatur cum eis & baptizabat".  
>But as Stephen pointed out, the word for baptism is fulluht, e.g. 
>Matt. 3.7: "Soðlice þa he geseh manega þæra sunder-halgena & 
>þæra riht-wisendra to his fulluhte cumende."
>So too West Saxon II (c. 1175), which does not even have John as 
>"baptista" in Matt. 3.1 but rather "fulluhtere" 

Any of the BAPT words would be transliterations from Greek
BAPTISMOS (and other forms).  But what about "fulluht"?  Was
that a translation of BAPTISMOS?  And if a translation, what did
it mean?  Thanks again for the help.
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