[Corpus-Paul] Paul's diatribe against Peter
Mark Goodacre
goodacre at gmail.com
Thu Apr 26 11:12:59 EDT 2007
On 26/04/07, Given, Mark Douglas <MarkGiven at missouristate.edu> wrote:
> I'm a big fan of translations reflecting as much of the ambiguity of the original as possible. A quick look at the various translations in my Bible software program showed that the ASV (1901) refrained from putting any quotation marks in at all. That fits my opinion because I think it's impossible to have any confidence one way or another in the extent of what Paul intended to include as part of his "sermon" to Peter.
Agreed. Also, the question presupposes that Paul knew where he was
talking about the Antioch incident and where he was talking to /
applying it to the Galatians. But Paul's point in telling that story
is to relate it directly to the Galatians' situation, to make that
incident and Paul's rebuke "present" in the hearing of the Galatians.
So does Paul actually even think in terms of where he is quoting
himself and where he is not? Rather, if one thinks in terms of the
rhetoric of the letter, he is beginning with the incident, making
present his response to Peter, and continuing to make it present and
relevant in the hearing of the Galatians, in a speech to the Galatians
that continues all the way to the end of the chapter, and beyond.
Mark
--
Mark Goodacre Goodacre at duke.edu
Associate Professor
Duke University
Department of Religion
118 Gray Building / Box 90964
Durham, NC 27708-0964 USA
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